Summary


Let $f(x)$ be a function that is defined for all $x$ on some interval $I$. If, for each value of $y$ in the range of $f$ there is one (and only one), value of $x$ in the interval $I$ such that $f(x) = y$, then we define an inverse function $f^{-1}$ according to the following rule:

<aside> ⚡ $f^{-1}(y)$ is the unique $x$ in the interval $I$ such that $y = f(x)$

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How to determine if a function has an inverse?

How to find $f^{-1}(x)$?

Inverse Trigonomic Functions