<aside> 🏥 If $f$ and $g$ are differentiable and $lim_{x \to a} f(x) = 0 = lim_{x \to a} g(x)$, then $lim_{x \to a} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} = lim_{x \to a} \frac{f’(x)}{g’(x)}$, provided $lim_{x \to a} \frac{f’(x)}{g’(x)}$ exists, or is $+/- \infty$

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